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MCQ தேர்வு
Q1
Which rock type is most representative of the uppermost oceanic mantle?
A
Granite
B
Peridotite
C
Rhyolite
D
Limestone
Q2
Which process converts loose sediment into a coherent sedimentary rock?
A
Diagenesis
B
Partial melting
C
Magmatic differentiation
D
Regional metamorphism
Q3
Which mineral is the principal constituent of most limestones?
A
Dolomite
B
Calcite
C
Quartz
D
Hematite
Q4
Which metamorphic reaction commonly produces sillimanite from muscovite and quartz at high temperature?
A
Muscovite + quartz → sillimanite + K-feldspar + H2O
B
Calcite → dolomite + quartz
C
Glaucophane → lawsonite
D
Olivine → quartz
Q5
Which seismic wave cannot propagate through the liquid outer core?
A
P-wave
B
S-wave
C
Rayleigh wave
D
Love wave
Q6
Which geological principle states that, in an undisturbed sequence of sedimentary strata, the oldest layer is generally at the bottom?
A
Principle of faunal succession
B
Principle of superposition
C
Principle of cross-cutting relationships
D
Principle of inclusions
Q7
Which mineral is a characteristic indicator of blueschist-facies metamorphism?
A
Glaucophane
B
Hypersthene
C
Microcline
D
Forsterite
Q8
Which geological process most directly causes isostatic rebound following the melting of a large continental ice sheet?
A
Increase in mantle density
B
Removal of surface load and viscous adjustment of the mantle
C
Rapid ocean-floor spreading
D
Subduction of continental crust
Q9
Symmetrical magnetic striping on both sides of a mid-ocean ridge is strongest evidence for:
A
Continental collision
B
Seafloor spreading
C
Subduction cessation
D
Transform fault locking
Q10
Which plate boundary is best represented by the San Andreas Fault system?
A
Divergent boundary
B
Convergent oceanic-oceanic boundary
C
Transform boundary
D
Continental collision boundary
Q11
Which type of unconformity represents a period of erosion or non-deposition between parallel sedimentary strata?
A
Angular unconformity
B
Disconformity
C
Nonconformity
D
Paraconformity
Q12
In Bowen's discontinuous reaction series, which mineral crystallizes immediately after olivine as temperature decreases?
A
Quartz
B
Pyroxene
C
Muscovite
D
Alkali feldspar
Q13
A positive magnetic anomaly over oceanic crust is most directly related to:
A
Uniform magnetization with no relation to plate motion
B
Magnetic minerals recording the polarity of Earth's magnetic field during crustal formation
C
Chemical weathering of oceanic sediments
D
Formation of continental granite
Q14
Which fault type is most characteristic of compressional tectonic regimes?
A
Normal fault
B
Reverse or thrust fault
C
Transform fault
D
Detachment-free strike-slip fault
Q15
Which rock is most likely to form by contact metamorphism adjacent to a shallow igneous intrusion?
A
Mylonite
B
Hornfels
C
Eclogite
D
Blueschist
Q16
Which mineral is generally considered the most stable under surface weathering conditions among the following?
A
Olivine
B
Pyroxene
C
Quartz
D
Calcic plagioclase
Q17
Which mineral is most likely to show perfect basal cleavage due to its sheet silicate structure?
A
Quartz
B
Olivine
C
Muscovite
D
Garnet
Q18
The P-wave shadow zone is primarily caused by:
A
Complete absorption of P-waves by the mantle
B
Refraction of P-waves at the core-mantle boundary
C
Reflection from the crust
D
Absence of earthquakes below the crust
Q19
According to the principle of cross-cutting relationships, a geological feature that cuts another geological feature is generally:
A
Older than the feature it cuts
B
Younger than the feature it cuts
C
The same age as the feature it cuts
D
Impossible to date
Q20
Which radioactive isotope system is particularly suitable for dating zircon-bearing igneous rocks because zircon incorporates uranium but strongly excludes lead during crystallization?
A
K-Ar
B
U-Pb
C
Rb-Sr
D
C-14
Q21
What does the presence of cross-bedding most directly indicate?
A
The direction and nature of sediment transport
B
The absolute age of the sediment
C
The chemical composition of the source rock only
D
The metamorphic grade of the sediment
Q22
Which sedimentary mineral is most characteristic of evaporite deposits formed by intense evaporation?
A
Halite
B
Pyroxene
C
Feldspar
D
Amphibole
Q23
Which Al2SiO5 polymorph is most strongly associated with high-temperature metamorphism?
A
Andalusite
B
Kyanite
C
Sillimanite
D
Kaolinite
Q24
Which seismic discontinuity separates the upper mantle from the lower mantle?
A
Mohorovičić discontinuity
B
Gutenberg discontinuity
C
Lehmann discontinuity
D
660-km discontinuity
Q25
Which type of weathering is most important in humid tropical climates?
A
Chemical weathering
B
Frost wedging
C
Salt crystallization
D
Thermal exfoliation alone
Q26
The Bowen reaction series and Goldich dissolution series together demonstrate that:
A
All minerals have identical stability at Earth's surface
B
Mineral stability during crystallization and weathering follows systematic trends
C
Only metamorphic minerals undergo alteration
D
Sedimentary minerals cannot originate from igneous rocks
Q27
The Mohorovičić discontinuity primarily represents a boundary between:
A
Upper mantle and lower mantle
B
Crust and mantle
C
Inner core and outer core
D
Lithosphere and asthenosphere
Q28
Which metamorphic polymorph of Al2SiO5 is generally stable at the highest pressures among the three Al2SiO5 polymorphs?
A
Andalusite
B
Kyanite
C
Sillimanite
D
Corundum
Q29
Which mineral assemblage is most indicative of eclogite-facies metamorphism?
A
Quartz + chlorite + albite
B
Omphacite + garnet
C
Calcite + dolomite
D
Kaolinite + goethite
Q30
A Bouma sequence is classically associated with deposits produced by:
A
Glacial deposition
B
Turbidity currents
C
Wind-blown sand
D
Chemical precipitation
Q31
Which sedimentary structure provides the most reliable evidence for determining the younging direction of a sedimentary bed?
A
Ripple marks
B
Graded bedding
C
Load casts
D
Mud cracks
Q32
Which fossil group is most useful for high-resolution biostratigraphic correlation because of rapid evolutionary change and wide distribution?
A
Stromatolites
B
Ammonoids
C
Large bivalves
D
Corals restricted to reefs
Q33
Which seismic observation provides the strongest direct evidence that the outer core is liquid?
A
Presence of P-waves
B
Absence of S-waves through the outer core
C
Presence of Love waves
D
High-frequency surface waves
Q34
Which sedimentary structure is most directly associated with periodic drying of muddy sediment?
A
Flute casts
B
Mud cracks
C
Load casts
D
Convolute bedding
Q35
Which mineral is particularly useful for determining the crystallization age of many igneous and metamorphic rocks because of its U-Pb system and resistance to alteration?
A
Zircon
B
Calcite
C
Halite
D
Gypsum
Q36
The texture of a rock containing large crystals embedded in a fine-grained groundmass is called:
A
Aphanitic
B
Porphyritic
C
Pegmatitic
D
Glassy
Q37
Which radiometric dating method is most appropriate for determining the age of very young organic material on archaeological timescales?
A
U-Pb
B
K-Ar
C
Carbon-14
D
Sm-Nd
Q38
A geologist observes a sequence of sedimentary beds in which each successive bed becomes coarser upward. This pattern most strongly suggests:
A
Normal grading
B
Reverse grading
C
Chemical precipitation
D
Bioturbation
Q39
Which metamorphic index mineral generally indicates a higher metamorphic grade than chlorite but lower grade than kyanite or sillimanite in typical pelitic sequences?
A
Biotite
B
Garnet
C
Staurolite
D
Andalusite
Q40
Which metamorphic rock is produced predominantly by dynamic metamorphism along major fault zones?
A
Marble
B
Quartzite
C
Mylonite
D
Hornfels
Q41
A xenolith enclosed within an igneous rock is generally:
A
Younger than the host rock
B
Older than the host rock
C
Exactly the same age as the host rock
D
Always metamorphic
Q42
Which geophysical method is particularly useful for mapping subsurface density variations associated with geological structures?
A
Gravity surveying
B
Palynology
C
Petrographic microscopy
D
Fossil analysis
Q43
The Bowen reaction series predicts that, with progressive cooling of a basaltic magma, which mineral is expected to crystallize at the highest temperature?
A
Quartz
B
Olivine
C
Muscovite
D
K-feldspar
Q44
Which mineral group is characterized structurally by single chains of SiO4 tetrahedra?
A
Pyroxenes
B
Amphiboles
C
Micas
D
Feldspars
Q45
The Gutenberg discontinuity marks the boundary between:
A
Crust and mantle
B
Upper and lower mantle
C
Mantle and outer core
D
Outer and inner core
Q46
A thrust fault differs from a typical reverse fault primarily because it has:
A
A dip greater than 60 degrees
B
A low-angle fault surface, commonly less than about 30 degrees
C
Only horizontal displacement
D
No vertical component of movement
Q47
The principle of faunal succession states that:
A
All fossils occur randomly through geological time
B
Fossil organisms succeed one another in a definite and recognizable order
C
Older rocks always contain more fossils
D
Only marine fossils are useful for correlation
Q48
Which tectonic setting is most strongly associated with the formation of ophiolite sequences?
A
Stable continental interiors
B
Oceanic crust and upper mantle subsequently obducted onto continents
C
Intracratonic sedimentary basins
D
Passive continental margins without deformation
Q49
Which metamorphic facies is particularly associated with high pressure and relatively low temperature conditions typical of subduction zones?
A
Greenschist facies
B
Granulite facies
C
Blueschist facies
D
Hornfels facies
Q50
Which sedimentary rock is distinguished by more than 50% rounded gravel-sized clasts?
A
Breccia
B
Conglomerate
C
Siltstone
D
Chert
Q51
In a normal fault, the hanging wall moves:
A
Up relative to the footwall
B
Down relative to the footwall
C
Horizontally without vertical movement
D
Only rotationally
Q52
Which geological phenomenon most directly demonstrates that continents have moved relative to one another through geological time?
A
Daily tides
B
Apparent polar wander paths recorded on different continents
C
Seasonal rainfall variation
D
Formation of modern river deltas
Q53
A mineral has a Mohs hardness of approximately 7 and commonly occurs as colourless to pale varieties in igneous and metamorphic rocks. Which mineral is it?
A
Calcite
B
Quartz
C
Gypsum
D
Fluorite
Q54
The process by which feldspar alters to clay minerals is primarily:
A
Hydrolysis
B
Carbonation only
C
Frost action
D
Deflation
Q55
Which mineral assemblage is most characteristic of the granulite facies in a pelitic rock under relatively low water activity?
A
Biotite + muscovite + chlorite
B
Garnet + orthopyroxene + sillimanite
C
Actinolite + chlorite + epidote
D
Glaucophane + lawsonite + jadeite
Q56
Which sedimentary environment is most likely to produce graded beds with sole marks and Bouma-type divisions?
A
Deep-marine submarine fan
B
Eolian dune field
C
Evaporite basin
D
Alluvial fan proximal zone
Q57
Which igneous rock is characterized by an exceptionally coarse grain size and commonly forms from volatile-rich residual magma?
A
Rhyolite
B
Pegmatite
C
Basalt
D
Obsidian
Q58
A sandstone containing abundant angular grains and a matrix-rich composition is most likely to be classified as:
A
Quartz arenite
B
Greywacke
C
Conglomerate
D
Arkose
Q59
Which igneous rock is the intrusive equivalent of basalt?
A
Granite
B
Diorite
C
Gabbro
D
Peridotite
Q60
Which process is primarily responsible for the formation of karst topography in regions underlain by limestone?
A
Mechanical weathering by frost
B
Chemical dissolution by carbonic acid-bearing water
C
Regional metamorphism
D
Wind deflation
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