TNPSC Model Test
☰
Tamil
Tamil
▼
6th Tamil
7th Tamil
8th Tamil
9th Tamil
10th Tamil
English
English
▼
6th English
7th English
8th English
9th English
10th English
Maths
Maths
▼
6th Maths
7th Maths
8th Maths
9th Maths
10th Maths
Science
Science
▼
6th Science
7th Science
8th Science
9th Science
10th Science
Social
Social
▼
6th Social
7th Social
8th Social
9th Social
10th Social
இலக்கணம்
இலக்கணம்
▼
புணர்ச்சி
சொல் வகைகள்
வேற்றுமை உருபுகள்
விகுதிகள்
எழுத்தியல்
பகுபத உறுப்பிலக்கணம்
வழு கண்டறிதல்
வாக்கிய வகைகள்
சந்தி விதிகள்
காலங்கள் மற்றும் வினைமுற்று
பொது அறிவு
பொது அறிவு
▼
நாடுகள் மற்றும் தலைநகரங்கள்
மாநிலங்கள் மற்றும் தலைநகரங்கள்
முக்கிய தினங்கள்
நாடுகள் மற்றும் நாணயங்கள்
இந்திய விண்வெளி நிலையங்கள்
உலக விண்வெளி நிலையங்கள்
முக்கிய அணைகள்
பாரம்பரிய (செவ்வியல்) நடனங்கள்
நாட்டுப்புற நடனங்கள்
சர்வதேச அமைப்புகள் மற்றும் அவற்றின் தலைமையகங்கள்
தேசியப் பூங்காக்கள்
வனவிலங்கு சரணாலயங்கள்
முக்கிய விளையாட்டு அரங்கங்கள்
முக்கிய விமான நிலையங்கள்
கோப்பைகள் மற்றும் விருதுகள்
முக்கிய தலைப்புகள்
முக்கிய தலைப்புகள்
▼
காலவரிசை
வம்சங்கள் மற்றும் தலைநகரங்கள்
முக்கிய போர்கள்
இந்திய விடுதலை இயக்கம்
ஆங்கிலேயர் சட்டங்கள்
முக்கிய அரசியலமைப்பு சட்டப்பிரிவுகள்
அரசியலமைப்பு திருத்தங்கள்
அட்டவணைகள்
அரசியலமைப்பு அமைப்புகள்
முக்கிய குழுக்கள்
இந்தியாவின் ஆறுகள்
மலைத்தொடர்கள்
கணவாய்கள்
முக்கிய ஏரிகள்
முக்கிய துறைமுகங்கள்
பொது அறிவியல்
பொது அறிவியல்
▼
மின்சாரம் மற்றும் மின்காந்தவியல்
இயக்கவியல்
ஒளியியல்
வெப்பவியல்
அறிவியல் கருவிகள் மற்றும் SI அலகுகள்
அமிலம் – காரம் – உப்பு
தனிமங்கள் மற்றும் தனிம அட்டவணை
அணு அமைப்பு
வேதிவினைகள்
தினசரி வாழ்க்கை வேதியியல்
மனித உடலியல்
செல் மற்றும் மரபியல்
மனித நோய்கள் மற்றும் தடுப்பூசிகள்
ஊட்டச்சத்து மற்றும் வைட்டமின்கள்
சுற்றுச்சூழல் மற்றும் உயிரிப்பன்மை
Combined Technical Services
Combined Technical Services
▼
Civil Engineering
Mechanical Engineering
Electrical & Electronics Engineering
Electronics & Communication Engineering
Computer Science / IT
Agriculture
Horticulture
Architecture
Chemistry
Zoology
Botany
Commerce
Library Science
Statistics
Mathematics
Geology
Fisheries
Textile Technology
TN Group Exams Quiz
முகப்பு/Home
All tests
என் தேர்வு முடிவுகள்/My score
MCQ தேர்வு
Q1
For a three-phase balanced star-connected load, if the phase voltage is 230 V, what is the line voltage?
A
230 V
B
398.4 V
C
460 V
D
690 V
Q2
Which semiconductor material has the widest band gap among the following?
A
Germanium
B
Silicon
C
Gallium arsenide
D
Indium antimonide
Q3
Which test on a transformer is primarily used to determine core loss?
A
Short-circuit test
B
Open-circuit test
C
Load test
D
Sumpner test only
Q4
In a DC machine, armature reaction mainly causes:
A
Only mechanical losses
B
Flux distortion and weakening
C
Increase in insulation resistance
D
Reduction in brush contact resistance
Q5
In a buck converter operating in continuous conduction mode, the ideal output voltage is:
A
Vd/(1−D)
B
DVd
C
Vd/D
D
(1−D)Vd
Q6
Which motor is preferred where high starting torque and variable speed are required?
A
DC series motor
B
DC shunt motor
C
Synchronous motor
D
Reluctance motor
Q7
A three-phase induction motor draws 20 A at 0.8 power factor from a 400 V supply. Its approximate active input power is:
A
8.32 kW
B
11.09 kW
C
13.86 kW
D
16.00 kW
Q8
A 10 kVA, 200/400 V transformer has a full-load secondary current of:
A
12.5 A
B
25 A
C
50 A
D
100 A
Q9
Which power electronic device can be turned OFF by a gate signal under normal operation?
A
SCR
B
TRIAC
C
GTO
D
DIAC
Q10
The primary purpose of the Buchholz relay in an oil-immersed transformer is to detect:
A
External short circuits only
B
Internal faults producing gas
C
Overvoltage only
D
Low oil temperature
Q11
The ripple frequency of a three-phase full-wave bridge rectifier supplied from a 50 Hz source is:
A
50 Hz
B
100 Hz
C
150 Hz
D
300 Hz
Q12
In a balanced Wheatstone bridge, the galvanometer current is:
A
Maximum
B
Zero
C
Equal to supply current
D
Infinite
Q13
The rotor frequency of an induction motor operating at slip s and supply frequency f is:
A
f/s
B
f(1−s)
C
sf
D
f+s
Q14
A CT secondary should never be open-circuited while its primary is energized because:
A
Primary current becomes zero
B
Dangerously high secondary voltage may develop
C
Frequency becomes zero
D
The CT becomes a capacitor
Q15
The primary function of a circuit breaker is to:
A
Measure voltage
B
Interrupt fault current
C
Improve power factor
D
Generate electrical power
Q16
The condition for maximum power transfer from a DC source to a resistive load is:
A
RL = 0
B
RL = Rth
C
RL = 2Rth
D
RL = ∞
Q17
Which relay is commonly used for protection of long high-voltage transmission lines?
A
Thermal relay
B
Distance relay
C
Overload relay only
D
Buchholz relay
Q18
For a symmetrical three-phase fault, the negative and zero sequence currents are:
A
Equal to positive sequence current
B
Zero
C
Twice positive sequence current
D
Infinite
Q19
The cogging phenomenon in an induction motor occurs mainly due to:
A
Rotor overheating
B
Magnetic locking between stator and rotor teeth
C
Low rotor resistance
D
Excessive slip only
Q20
The Ferranti effect becomes significant in:
A
Short loaded lines
B
Long lightly loaded or unloaded lines
C
DC transmission lines
D
Low-voltage cables only
Q21
A common-emitter BJT amplifier provides a phase shift between input and output of approximately:
A
0°
B
90°
C
180°
D
270°
Q22
In a phase-locked loop, the VCO frequency is controlled by:
A
Input resistance only
B
Control voltage
C
Output impedance only
D
Transformer turns ratio
Q23
In a DC shunt motor, which condition primarily causes the motor speed to increase dangerously?
A
Increase in armature resistance
B
Open-circuit field winding
C
Increase in load
D
Decrease in armature voltage
Q24
A DC series motor should never be operated without mechanical load because:
A
Its torque becomes zero
B
It may attain dangerously high speed
C
Its field current becomes infinite
D
Its armature resistance becomes zero
Q25
The crawling phenomenon in an induction motor is mainly associated with:
A
Fundamental harmonic
B
Seventh harmonic
C
Third harmonic only
D
DC component
Q26
The characteristic impedance of a lossless transmission line is determined by:
A
Only line length
B
L/C ratio
C
R/G ratio
D
Only load resistance
Q27
The main purpose of earthing electrical equipment is to:
A
Increase load current
B
Provide a low-impedance path for fault current and limit touch voltage
C
Increase supply voltage
D
Improve motor speed
Q28
In an ideal voltage-source inverter, the output voltage waveform is fundamentally controlled by:
A
Only load resistance
B
Switching strategy and DC-link voltage
C
Transformer oil temperature
D
Rotor slip
Q29
At resonance in a series RLC circuit, the impedance is:
A
Maximum and purely inductive
B
Minimum and purely resistive
C
Maximum and purely capacitive
D
Zero for every practical circuit
Q30
Aliasing in an ADC occurs when the sampling frequency is:
A
Greater than twice the highest input frequency
B
Exactly zero
C
Less than twice the highest input frequency
D
Infinite
Q31
PWM inverters are primarily used to:
A
Eliminate all switching losses
B
Control output voltage and reduce selected harmonics
C
Convert AC directly into DC
D
Increase transformer core loss
Q32
The synchronous speed of a 6-pole, 50 Hz induction motor is:
A
500 rpm
B
750 rpm
C
1000 rpm
D
1500 rpm
Q33
Bundled conductors in EHV transmission lines are mainly used to:
A
Increase corona loss
B
Reduce corona and increase power-transfer capability
C
Increase conductor resistance
D
Reduce mechanical strength
Q34
The power factor of a synchronous motor can be controlled by varying its:
A
Mechanical load only
B
Supply frequency only
C
Field excitation
D
Armature resistance
Q35
For an ideal op-amp operating with negative feedback, the voltage difference between its input terminals is approximately:
A
Infinite
B
Equal to supply voltage
C
Zero
D
Equal to output voltage
Q36
For a single line-to-ground fault, the positive, negative and zero sequence networks are connected:
A
In parallel
B
Only positive sequence
C
In series
D
Only zero sequence
Q37
The quality factor of a series RLC circuit at resonance is:
A
R/(ω0L)
B
ω0L/R
C
1/(ω0LR)
D
ω0R/L
Q38
The reach of a distance relay is primarily determined by:
A
Measured impedance
B
Transformer oil level
C
Generator speed
D
Frequency alone
Q39
An overexcited synchronous motor operates at:
A
Lagging power factor
B
Unity power factor only
C
Leading power factor
D
Zero power factor always
Q40
The skin effect in a conductor causes:
A
Current to concentrate at the surface at AC
B
Current to concentrate at the center at AC
C
Resistance to become zero
D
Inductance to become zero
Q41
In a power system, the primary purpose of reactive power compensation using shunt capacitors is to:
A
Increase line current
B
Improve power factor and reduce reactive current
C
Increase system frequency
D
Increase transformer copper loss
Q42
Which logic family generally offers the lowest static power dissipation?
A
ECL
B
TTL
C
CMOS
D
RTL
Q43
A 50 Hz transformer has a maximum flux of 0.01 Wb and 100 turns in its primary winding. What is the approximate RMS induced emf?
A
222 V
B
314 V
C
444 V
D
628 V
Q44
In a transformer, the maximum efficiency occurs when:
A
Copper loss is zero
B
Iron loss is zero
C
Copper loss equals iron loss
D
Copper loss is twice iron loss
Q45
For an overhead transmission line, corona loss increases significantly with:
A
Decrease in conductor diameter
B
Increase in air density
C
Increase in operating voltage
D
Decrease in conductor spacing
Q46
In a DC generator, the commutator primarily acts as:
A
A voltage regulator
B
A mechanical rectifier
C
A current amplifier
D
A frequency converter
Q47
In a synchronous generator, the frequency of generated emf is determined primarily by:
A
Rotor resistance
B
Excitation current only
C
Speed and number of poles
D
Armature resistance
Q48
In a capacitor-input filter, increasing the capacitance generally causes the ripple voltage to:
A
Increase
B
Decrease
C
Remain unchanged
D
Become zero always
Q49
The Barkhausen criterion for sustained oscillation requires the loop gain to satisfy:
A
|Aβ| = 0
B
|Aβ| < 1
C
|Aβ| = 1 with net phase shift 0° or 360°
D
|Aβ| > 100 always
Q50
The slip of an induction motor operating at 1440 rpm on a 50 Hz, four-pole supply is:
A
2%
B
4%
C
6%
D
8%
Q51
For an ideal boost converter operating in continuous conduction mode, the output voltage is:
A
DVd
B
Vd(1−D)
C
Vd/(1−D)
D
VdD/(1−D)
Q52
In a MOSFET, the gate current under steady-state DC operation is ideally:
A
Very large
B
Approximately zero
C
Equal to drain current
D
Equal to source current
Q53
Which starting method provides the highest starting torque for a slip-ring induction motor?
A
Direct-on-line starting
B
Star-delta starting
C
Rotor resistance starting
D
Autotransformer starting
Q54
The resolution of an ideal n-bit ADC expressed as a fraction of full-scale range is approximately:
A
1/n
B
1/2^n
C
2^n
D
n/2
Q55
The per-unit impedance of a transformer is independent of:
A
Choice of base MVA
B
Choice of base voltage
C
Actual transformer rating
D
Both base MVA and base voltage
Q56
For maximum power transfer in an AC circuit, the load impedance should be:
A
Equal to source impedance
B
Conjugate of source impedance
C
Twice source impedance
D
Half the source impedance
தேர்வை சமர்ப்பிக்கவும்/Submit the test