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MCQ தேர்வு
Q1
For a uniform plane electromagnetic wave propagating in free space, the electric field E and magnetic field H are:
A
Parallel and in phase
B
Perpendicular and 180° out of phase
C
Perpendicular and in phase
D
Parallel and 90° out of phase
Q2
The directivity of an isotropic antenna is:
A
0 dB
B
1 dB
C
2.15 dB
D
∞ dB
Q3
The characteristic impedance of a lossless transmission line is:
A
Always purely imaginary
B
Always real and positive
C
Always zero
D
Dependent only on load impedance
Q4
Which flip-flop configuration is most suitable for eliminating the invalid state associated with an SR flip-flop?
A
JK flip-flop
B
D flip-flop
C
T flip-flop
D
Master-slave SR latch
Q5
For a binary PSK system operating over an AWGN channel, coherent detection requires:
A
Only an envelope detector
B
A synchronized carrier reference
C
No carrier reference
D
Only a low-pass filter
Q6
In an RLC series circuit at resonance, the impedance is:
A
Maximum and purely inductive
B
Minimum and purely resistive
C
Maximum and purely capacitive
D
Zero for every R
Q7
In amplitude modulation, if the modulation index is 0.8, the percentage of total transmitted power contained in the sidebands is:
A
20%
B
24.39%
C
39.02%
D
64%
Q8
For a causal LTI system with transfer function H(s) = 1/(s+2), the impulse response is:
A
e^(2t)u(t)
B
e^(−2t)u(t)
C
2e^(−t)u(t)
D
e^(−t/2)u(t)
Q9
In a negative-feedback amplifier, increasing the amount of negative feedback generally:
A
Increases distortion and decreases bandwidth
B
Reduces distortion and increases bandwidth
C
Increases gain indefinitely
D
Eliminates the need for an active device
Q10
For a discrete-time LTI system, the sequence h[n] = (0.8)^n u[n] is:
A
Causal and stable
B
Causal and unstable
C
Noncausal and stable
D
Noncausal and unstable
Q11
In a PLL, the primary role of the phase detector is to:
A
Generate the reference frequency
B
Compare the phase of two signals and produce an error signal
C
Increase the carrier frequency directly
D
Remove all harmonics
Q12
For a Schmitt trigger using an ideal op-amp with symmetrical positive and negative saturation voltages of ±Vsat, the main function of positive feedback is to:
A
Reduce hysteresis
B
Create hysteresis
C
Eliminate saturation
D
Convert AC into DC
Q13
The intrinsic impedance of free space is approximately:
A
60 Ω
B
120π Ω
C
377 Ω
D
1000 Ω
Q14
A 12-bit ADC has an input range of 0 to 5 V. Its ideal quantization step size is approximately:
A
0.610 mV
B
1.22 mV
C
2.44 mV
D
4.88 mV
Q15
For a rectangular waveguide of dimensions a × b with a > b, the cutoff frequency of the TE10 mode is:
A
c/(2b)
B
c/(2a)
C
c/a
D
2c/a
Q16
In a 555 timer operating in astable mode, the capacitor voltage ideally varies between:
A
0 and VCC
B
0 and VCC/2
C
1/3 VCC and 2/3 VCC
D
1/2 VCC and VCC
Q17
An ideal integrator op-amp circuit produces an output proportional to:
A
The derivative of input
B
The integral of input
C
The logarithm of input
D
The square of input
Q18
A MOSFET operates in saturation with ID = 2 mA. If its drain current is modeled as ID = K(VGS − VT)^2 and VGS − VT is increased by 10%, approximately by what percentage does ID increase?
A
10%
B
20%
C
21%
D
44%
Q19
The fundamental principle of a magic tee is based on the properties of:
A
Only capacitors
B
E-plane and H-plane waveguide junctions
C
PN junctions
D
Ferrite hysteresis only
Q20
In a superheterodyne receiver, the intermediate frequency is 455 kHz and the incoming signal frequency is 1000 kHz. For high-side local oscillator injection, the local oscillator frequency is:
A
545 kHz
B
1000 kHz
C
1455 kHz
D
455 kHz
Q21
For a unity-feedback Type-1 system, the steady-state error for a step input is:
A
Always infinite
B
Always zero
C
Finite and nonzero
D
Dependent only on damping ratio
Q22
The Fourier transform of a time-domain signal x(t) is X(jω). If x(t) is multiplied by cos(ω0t), its spectrum becomes:
A
X(j(ω−ω0)) only
B
X(j(ω+ω0)) only
C
1/2[X(j(ω−ω0)) + X(j(ω+ω0))]
D
X(jω)cos(ω0t)
Q23
In an ideal instrumentation amplifier, high CMRR is especially important because it:
A
Increases power consumption
B
Allows common-mode interference to be rejected while amplifying the differential signal
C
Eliminates the need for a power supply
D
Makes the gain exactly zero
Q24
In a differential BJT amplifier with an ideal tail current source, if the differential input voltage is increased from zero while both transistors remain active, the tail current:
A
Increases linearly
B
Decreases linearly
C
Remains constant
D
Becomes zero
Q25
For a lossless transmission line, the voltage standing wave ratio is related to the magnitude of reflection coefficient Γ by:
A
VSWR = 1 − |Γ|
B
VSWR = 1 + |Γ|
C
VSWR = (1 + |Γ|)/(1 − |Γ|)
D
VSWR = |Γ|/(1 + |Γ|)
Q26
Which logic family generally provides the lowest static power dissipation among conventional CMOS logic gates?
A
TTL
B
CMOS
C
ECL
D
RTL
Q27
In a successive approximation ADC, the conversion process primarily depends on:
A
An integrator and counter
B
A DAC, comparator and successive approximation register
C
A phase detector and VCO
D
A sample-and-hold alone
Q28
The slew rate of an op-amp limits its ability to:
A
Provide DC gain
B
Reject common-mode signals
C
Respond to large-amplitude high-frequency signals without distortion
D
Reduce input bias current
Q29
In a conventional AM transmitter, the carrier power is 100 W and the modulation index is 0.6. The total transmitted power is:
A
118 W
B
120 W
C
136 W
D
160 W
Q30
In an ideal operational amplifier, the common-mode rejection ratio is:
A
Zero
B
Unity
C
Finite but always less than 1
D
Infinite
Q31
A JK flip-flop is clocked at 20 MHz with J = K = 1. Ignoring propagation delay, the frequency of the output Q is:
A
20 MHz
B
10 MHz
C
5 MHz
D
40 MHz
Q32
The dominant mode in a rectangular waveguide is:
A
TE10
B
TE01
C
TM10
D
TM11
Q33
For an ideal CMOS inverter operating at a constant supply voltage, dynamic power consumption is primarily proportional to:
A
1/f
B
VDD
C
VDD squared and switching frequency
D
Threshold voltage only
Q34
A transmission line is terminated in its characteristic impedance. The reflection coefficient at the load is:
A
−1
B
0
C
+1
D
∞
Q35
In a typical microprocessor system, an interrupt with higher priority than the currently executing interrupt can:
A
Never be serviced
B
Preempt the current interrupt service routine if nesting is enabled
C
Only reset the processor
D
Disable the clock permanently
Q36
In a PCM system, increasing the number of quantization bits from 8 to 12 increases the number of quantization levels by a factor of:
A
2
B
4
C
8
D
16
Q37
The quality factor Q of a series RLC circuit at resonance is:
A
R/(ω0L)
B
ω0L/R
C
1/(ω0CR)
D
Rω0C
Q38
For a microprocessor with a 16-bit address bus, the maximum directly addressable memory space is:
A
16 KB
B
32 KB
C
64 KB
D
1 MB
Q39
An antenna has a directivity of 100 and an efficiency of 80%. Its gain is:
A
80
B
100
C
125
D
180
Q40
An FM signal has a maximum frequency deviation of 75 kHz and a maximum modulating frequency of 15 kHz. Its modulation index is:
A
0.2
B
2
C
5
D
90
Q41
For a half-wave dipole in free space, the approximate radiation resistance at its center is:
A
36.5 Ω
B
50 Ω
C
73 Ω
D
120 Ω
Q42
An ideal sample-and-hold circuit samples a signal at 20 kHz. According to the Nyquist criterion, the maximum sinusoidal input frequency that can be sampled without aliasing is:
A
5 kHz
B
10 kHz
C
20 kHz
D
40 kHz
Q43
In an ideal differentiator op-amp circuit, the output voltage is proportional to:
A
Integral of input
B
Input voltage
C
Derivative of input
D
Square of input
Q44
According to Carson’s rule, an FM signal with maximum frequency deviation 75 kHz and maximum modulating frequency 15 kHz requires approximately what bandwidth?
A
90 kHz
B
120 kHz
C
150 kHz
D
180 kHz
Q45
For a uniform quantizer with quantization step size Δ, the quantization noise power for an ideal uniformly distributed error is:
A
Δ²
B
Δ²/2
C
Δ²/12
D
12Δ²
Q46
For a control system with open-loop transfer function G(s)H(s) = K/[s(s+2)(s+4)], the number of poles at the origin is:
A
0
B
1
C
2
D
3
Q47
The image frequency problem in a superheterodyne receiver occurs because:
A
The detector cannot demodulate FM
B
Two RF frequencies can produce the same intermediate frequency
C
The IF amplifier has infinite bandwidth
D
The oscillator cannot generate high frequencies
Q48
For a common-emitter BJT amplifier, if the transistor has a current gain β = 100 and the emitter resistance is completely bypassed for AC, what is the approximate voltage gain when RC = 2 kΩ and the transistor operates at IC = 1 mA?
A
−77.4
B
−100
C
−200
D
−2
Q49
In delta modulation, slope overload distortion occurs when:
A
The sampling frequency is too high
B
The input signal changes faster than the staircase can follow
C
The step size is too large for a constant input
D
Quantization noise becomes zero
Q50
In an ideal transformer, if the secondary voltage is twice the primary voltage, the secondary current is:
A
Twice the primary current
B
Equal to the primary current
C
Half the primary current
D
Four times the primary current
Q51
A Gunn diode operates primarily based on:
A
Zener breakdown
B
Negative differential resistance due to transferred-electron effect
C
Photovoltaic effect
D
Thermionic emission
Q52
A continuous-time LTI system is BIBO stable if and only if its impulse response is:
A
Absolutely integrable
B
Square integrable only
C
Periodic
D
Unbounded
Q53
The Z-transform ROC of a right-sided sequence must lie:
A
Inside the innermost pole
B
Outside the outermost pole
C
Between any two poles
D
Only on the unit circle
Q54
A Wheatstone bridge is balanced when:
A
All four resistances are equal only
B
The ratio of one pair of arms equals the ratio of the other pair
C
The supply voltage is zero
D
All branch currents are equal
Q55
The root locus of a feedback control system starts at:
A
Closed-loop zeros
B
Open-loop poles
C
Closed-loop poles only
D
Origin always
Q56
A 4-bit Johnson counter contains:
A
4 states
B
8 states
C
16 states
D
32 states
Q57
In a parallel RLC circuit at ideal resonance, the input impedance is:
A
Minimum
B
Maximum
C
Zero
D
Purely inductive and zero magnitude
Q58
In a synchronous counter, the major advantage over an asynchronous ripple counter is:
A
Lower power consumption in all cases
B
No propagation delay
C
All flip-flops receive the clock simultaneously
D
No flip-flops are required
Q59
An ideal op-amp has infinite open-loop gain. In a practical op-amp, the gain-bandwidth product is approximately constant. If the closed-loop gain is increased by a factor of 10, the bandwidth will approximately:
A
Increase by 10
B
Decrease by 10
C
Remain unchanged
D
Become zero
Q60
For a stable second-order system with characteristic equation s² + 2ζωn s + ωn² = 0, the system is critically damped when:
A
ζ = 0
B
ζ = 0.5
C
ζ = 1
D
ζ > 1
Q61
A klystron amplifier primarily uses:
A
Velocity modulation and electron bunching
B
Zener breakdown
C
Optical pumping
D
Magnetic hysteresis
Q62
The condition number of a matrix is particularly important in numerical computations because a large condition number indicates:
A
The matrix is always singular
B
The system is insensitive to errors
C
High sensitivity of the solution to small perturbations
D
The determinant must be zero
Q63
Which digital modulation scheme has the highest power efficiency among the following for coherent binary detection in AWGN?
A
BFSK
B
BPSK
C
ASK
D
On-off keying
Q64
The primary purpose of Miller compensation in a multistage operational amplifier is to:
A
Increase the DC gain only
B
Introduce a dominant pole and improve stability
C
Increase output resistance
D
Eliminate input offset voltage
Q65
The main purpose of a watchdog timer in an embedded system is to:
A
Increase RAM capacity
B
Generate analog signals
C
Reset the processor if software fails to operate correctly
D
Replace the CPU
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